Does God Hate Some People?
by Scott Price
Most people have fallen for the big lie that God loves everybody in the world without exception. You must think I'm crazy at this point if you have been taught that He loves everybody. Before you think that, listen to what God says in His word about His love and forget what every false teacher ever told you.
In Psalm 5:5 it says: "The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity". Notice it did NOT say He hated only the sin and not the sinner, like most preachers would have us believe."
In Malachi 1:2-3 says: "I loved you, saith the LORD. Yet ye say, wherein hast thou loved us? Was not Esua Jacob's brother? saith the LORD: yet I loved Jacob and I hated Esua...." This same Old Testament text is referred to in the New Testament in Romans 9:13. Really to get the whole picture I recommend starting at least in Romans 9:11-24.
One other text Matthew 7:23 says: "And then I will profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." You might be thinking what in the world does this verse have to do with God's love or hate? The word "knew" in that verse means affection or love. First of all, compare this verse with one we already looked at: Psalm 5:5 that said God hated all workers of iniquity. Very similar language is use in Matt 7:23 referring to iniquity. In other words if this person in Matt 7 was accused of being a worker of iniquity, then according to Psalm 5:5 God hated him.
Secondly, how can I prove the word "knew" means love? In Genesis 4:1 where it says: "And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain..." Question; Does the word knew is this verse only refer to an intellectual knowledge? Did Adam and Eve conceive a child through ESP? No. He had a deep affection for Eve. That is what knew meant in the verse. Adam knew (intellectually) who she was before he knew her in a sexual way.
Genesis 4:17 says: "And Cain knew his wife, and bare Enoch..."
Genesis 4:25 says: " And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth..." He "knew" her again. What, does Adam have Alzheimers disease? Did he forget who his wife was then remembered later? You can see an obvious word meaning here that relates to love.
Matthew 1:24-25 says: "Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the LORD had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: and knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son; and he called his name Jesus". This means Mary remained a virgin until Christ was born. After Jesus Christ was born Joseph knew Mary and had offspring, James and John. These were the half brothers of Christ because God the Father was the father of Christ, not Joseph.
In Luke 1:34 Mary makes reference to her becoming pregnant in order to have this baby named Jesus and says: "...How shall this be seeing I know not a man?" Don't you think Mary intellectually knew who a lot of men were like her dad, uncles, grandpa, cousins, men that were neighbors, men at the market place, men at synagogue, etc,? She was simply saying she was a virgin.
Now look at the word usage as dealing with a nation in the book of Amos 3:2 says concerning Israel: "You only have I known of all the families of the earth..." Surely don't you thing God knew intellectually about other nations that were on the earth? God knows everything doesn't He? Yes, of course. This is the character attribute called omniscience. He loved the nation of Israel only out of all the other nations.
Back in Matthew 7:23 where Christ says to the self righteous man that was trusting in his self righteous works, I never knew you, do you think that meant Jesus did not know anything about who the guy was or what he did? That would be nonsense! How can Jesus Christ be the great and final judge if He does not know who and what about everybody? The word knew in verse 23 refers to love. Christ never loved this man who was a worker of iniquity.
Look at a few verses in the book of Hebrews 12:5-11. The context is talking about chastisement and correction of God's people. Verse 6 says: "...whom the LORD loveth he chaseneth..." Verse 8 says: "But if ye be without chastisement, whereof all (note: "all" is referring to all Christians) are partakers, then are ye bastards and not sons". Does God correct everybody on earth as they live on this earth? No! No, because He does not love everybody. If people say God loves everybody then they have to say God has bastard children, simply because he does not chastize everybody. God has no bastard children, to be sure.
Romans 8:29 says "For whom he did foreknow, he did also predestinate...." Here the word would mean, to love before.
The bottom line is, if we can see at least one person in the scriptures that God does not love then we can NOT run around twisting the character of God saying that He says He does love everybody. Does truth matter?
You may be thinking, why would anyone bring this topic up? Well, I'm getting to a bigger point about how God saves sinners.
The most popular verse today is also the most misinterpreted verse. The verse is John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have everlasting life". This verse is loaded with some great truths. The problem is not with the verse but with people who want to twist the meaning of the verse.
My focus here is to prove the word "world" in John 3:16 does NOT refer to everybody that has ever been born on the face of the earth. If it can be proven from the Bible that there is one person that has lived that God does not love, we must then submit to the authority of Scripture and say the word "world" does NOT mean everybody without exception.
We already have seen this earlier that God hated a person named Esua and hates all workers of iniquity. These examples alone are enough to prove the point so far. There are a few more things that will support arguments on this subject.
First, let us look at John 3:16 in it's context. (#1) Who was talking? Jesus Christ. (#2) Who was Christ talking to? Nicodemus, a Jewish religious leader. The religious Jews thought that they only, were God's people because of their bloodline with Abraham (see John 8:39-47). In John 10:16 Christ explains there are two folds of sheep, one Jewish and the other Gentile. Within the Jewish sheep fold (group of people) these are made up of Jews that believe on the name of Christ, which is only a small remnant of Jews (see Romans 9:6 and 11:1-11). So a remnant out of the Jewish race and remnants out of all the other races of people make up the people of God that He loves and saves.
Christ was telling Nicodemus that God loves people in the Gentile race as well as the Jewish race. The GENTILE WORLD as well as the Jewish world.
The love of God is based on a persons acceptance "in Christ". Notice I did NOT say a persons acceptance OF Christ. In other words if you are to be loved by God it will be on the basis of Christ and His merit and not anything conditioned on you.
This can be seen in Ephesians 1:6 that says: "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved". The "beloved" is none other than Christ Jesus. God loved those He chose and predestinated. We see this in the same chapter but in verse 3-5, and please note who in the context Paul is addressing. Verse 1 says "to the saints which are at Ephesus..." In other words not universal. Verses 3-5 says "....Christ who blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: according as He has chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love having predestinated us unto the adoption of children unto Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will". All blessings are "in Christ". This includes the love of God. If you are not "in Christ" God will not love and bless you.
Another text that bares this truth is Romans 8:39 "Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature shall be able to separate us from the love of God that is in Christ Jesus the Lord". Notice that the love of God is "IN CHRIST JESUS THE LORD".
God's love is eternal. If God loves all without exception and Hell is overflowing with most of these people then what kind of love is that? Either God's love is not effective or he has no power to fulfill His purpose. I tell you that the God of the Bible loves those who believe His gospel. We have no biblical warrant to tell unbelievers that God loves them.
Can you image when Noah and his family were in the ark after the door was shut and the ark was well afloat and multitudes were trying to keep from drowning, while Noah lowered a large banner off the side of the ark that said "SMILE GOD LOVES YOU"? You see bumper stickers that say this on cars. People do not have the right, biblically to make such statements. God's love should only be conveyed to believers in God's gospel of grace.
Could Esau, Judas, or the rich man in Hell, have sung the song "Jesus loves me this I know for the Bible tells me so"? NO! They have no warrant to.
The first step is to realize God did not have to love everybody because He is not obligated to. That is what mercy and grace are all about, that He loved some and gave Himself for them and because He wanted to. Who is it that would say He has to have grace and mercy on all without exception? It is a person that does not understand grace and mercy. Grace and mercy are found in the imputed righteousness of Christ. Look anywhere else and you will be condemned.